How can Christians apply the phrase v’ayn lo, “he has nothing” or “he shall have nothing” (Daniel 9:26) and Isaiah 53:12, where the suffering servant receives “a portion with the great,” to Jesus?
In Isaiah 53:10, God’s promises concerning the suffering servant are conditional: “If he would . . . he shall see. . . .” Does this apply to Jesus?
Didn’t the delay in Jesus’ second coming give further opportunity for people to be “saved” by believing in him?
When speaking of Jesus’ second coming what does Paul mean by the word “shortly” in Romans 16:20 or the author of Revelation 22:10, 12, 20 by “the time is near” and “I am coming quickly”?
Why didn’t the Jewish authorities produce Jesus’ corpse when the rumor spread that he had risen from the dead? Let’s find out.
According to the New Testament, should all of Christianity be condemned because some that profess to be Christians have perpetrated horrific crimes in the name of Jesus?
Is it true that the New Testament criticism of the Jews is quite mild? Let’s find out.
Were the New Testament authors contriving anti-Jewish episodes or simply stating historical fact?
What are the implications of the New Testament claim that Jesus was “born under law”? Let’s find out.
Didn’t Jesus’ death mark the culmination of his perfect observance of the Mosaic Law and the institution of the perfect and continuous sacrifice for all time? Let’s find out.