According to Isaiah 53:8, why does the servant of the Lord suffer?
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The Jewish interpretation of Isaiah 53 maintains that the suffering servant of Israel suffered because of the persecutions by the Gentile nations. I understand that the nations overdid it when persecuting Israel but didn’t Israel suffer primarily because of its own sins? Read on to find out.
Did Jesus fulfill Isaiah 53:7 that describes the suffering servant “as a lamb that is led to the slaughter” and as someone who “opened not his mouth”?
Did Jesus fulfill the role of the asham, “guilt-offering,” that’s used to describe the suffering servant in Isaiah 53:10: “If he would offer himself as a guilt-offering”? Let’s find out.
Is it true (as Christians claim) that Jews at the time of the destruction of the Second Temple believed that Isaiah 53 spoke of a suffering messiah who was to die as an atonement for the sins of others and then be resurrected? Let’s find out.
Does “By oppression and judgment he was taken away,” refer to Jesus? Read this interesting post by Gerald Sigal.
Does the Gospel’s representation of Jesus show fulfillment of the description of the suffering servant: “he was despised and we esteemed him not” (Isaiah 53:3)?
Isaiah 53:10 says of the suffering servant, “He shall see seed, he shall prolong days.” Can this apply to Jesus? Let’s find out.
Isaiah 53:7 says that the suffering servant “humbled himself and opened not his mouth” as a lamb about to be slaughtered or a sheep dumb before its shearers. Does this describe Jesus’ behavior at his trials?
Isaiah 53:2 describes the suffering servant as one who “had no form nor comeliness, that we should look upon him, nor appearance that we should delight in him.” Does this fit the New Testament’s description of Jesus?