This past Sunday, exactly 3,330 years ago, G-d addressed our ancestors whom He had brought out of Egypt and told them, in the ‘voice of G-d,’ the first two of the Ten Commandments. This event, which they all experienced, changed us from a family of tribes into the Jewish nation. Matan Torah, the giving of [Read More]
Discover over 500 Articles on 50 topics on our knowledge base.
Showing Articles 1-10 of 590
Topics in Articles
Did Jesus suffer vicariously for the sins of mankind?
Jesus is often portrayed as suffering vicariously for the sins of mankind. No support for such a doctrine is to be found in verse 10. The verse does not say that the servant offered himself on behalf of others. Absolutely nothing is said about offering oneself for other people’s sins.
Making the unsuitable suitable New Testament style
It is alleged that Jesus was spiritually pure and sinless and that his supposed sacrificial death was prefigured in the Jewish Scriptures by images and types (e.g. Isaiah 53, Psalm 22). But who says he was spiritually pure and sinless? Who says his death was prefigured in the Jewish Scriptures? Only the tendentiously self-serving authors of the New Testament and their adherents!
53:10: “If he would offer himself as a guilt-offering”
The suffering servant as a guilt-offering
Following the initial declaration that it was God’s will for the servant to suffer, the verse is written as a conditional statement. If condition A is satisfied, then the outcome B will occur. That is, the rewards of verse 10 are contingent on the servant’s willingness to offer himself as anasham, “guilt-offering.”
A medley of secrets, lies and deception
Knowing that Elijah must precede the Messiah (Malachi 3:1, 23), Jesus claimed that John the Baptist was Elijah (Matthew 11:10-14, 17:10-13) even though John himself denied any connection with that prophet (John 1:21). Jesus’ avowal that the Law will exist “until heaven and earth pass away” (Matthew 5:18) is meant to be misleading.
Salvation was reserved for the select few
Jesus claimed that he revealed the meaning of his esoteric declarations (the parables) only to his disciples (Matthew 13:10-11; Mark 4:10-12, 34; Luke 8:9-10). Yet even that was untrue. Jesus knew very well that the disciples did not understand everything he told them (Mark 9:32; Luke 9:45, 18:34) and Jesus said and did things secretively so that the multitudes should not understand him. Why the secrecy? Why not a public proclamation instead?
53:9: “neither was there any deceit in his mouth”
The issue of Jesus’ deceitful behavior
Is there any indication that Jesus was deceitful to friend and foe alike?
Jesus and his philosophy of violence
Jesus was not adverse to using violence and held no general principle against violent action. If Jesus was truly non-violent he could not have uttered his call to family strife and divisiveness.
53:9: “his grave was set with the wicked”
The burial of Jesus
How was Jesus’ grave “set with the wicked”? Many Christians connect “wicked” with the two lestai (“thieves,” “brigands”) executed alongside Jesus (Matthew 27:38, Mark 15:27; “others,” in John 19:18).
53:8: “As a result of the transgression of my people he has been afflicted.”
The literal rendering of this verse is: “From the transgression of my people the stroke [nega‘] to them.” That is, because of the transgressions of the gentiles the servant suffered.