Jesus, the man, is said to be the mediator between God and men. Paul writes, “For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5). Jesus is called a “man,” even after his alleged resurrection. Now, if this supposedly resurrected Jesus were himself God and acted in total accord with the other two-thirds of God, he could not be a mediator, an intermediary or conciliator, “between God and men.”
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Paul states “that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father” (Philippians 2:11). Some Trinitarian Christians allege this shows that Paul taught that Jesus and God are equal. However, their claim is not correct. The complete passage shows Jesus’ in a subservient position to that of God:
John quotes Jesus as saying: “I am going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am” (John 14:28). Is this coequality within the Trinity? According to the New Testament, Jesus referred to God as “my God” both before and after his supposed resurrection (Matthew 27:46; John 20:17; Revelation 3:12). Thus, according to the New Testament, Jesus did not consider himself to be God or God’s coequal, but instead recognized his subservience to God to whom he must go. As John’s postresurrection Jesus says to Mary Magdalene, “I ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God” (John 20:17).
Continued from Part 2
Similarly, when asked if he would “at this time” restore the kingdom of Israel (Acts 1:6) Jesus replied: “It is not for you to know times or seasons which the Father has placed in His own jurisdiction” (Acts 1:7). Are we to conclude that the “equal” partners of the triune godhead have powers and knowledge, which they do not share with each other? Even after his supposed resurrection, Jesus is still not all-knowing but is said to receive increments of knowledge from God.
PART 2: THE PROBLEM OF THE SON
The Master and the servant
There are many New Testament passages that refute the Christian doctrine of the Trinity. An examination of statements attributed to Jesus by the Gospels, shows that he never said he was God or a part of God. Jesus spoke of his Father in heaven as his God (John 20:17), to whom he attributed superior authority, knowledge, and greatness (Matthew 20:23, Mark 13:32, John 14:28). The Trinity doctrine says “the Father” and “the Son” are coequal in power and substance, but what does the New Testament have to say?
PART 1: INTRODUCING THE PROBLEM
The notion of a triune deity
In trinitarian Christian belief there are three conscious personalities existing in one divine being or substance: the union in one God of Father, Son and Holy Spirit as three infinite, coequal and coeternal persons; one God in three persons.
As mentioned above a verse by verse explanation of how the people of Israel are the fulfillment the Suffering Servant prophecy can be found in Isaiah 53: Who is the Servant? In answer to those who deny this biblical truth and question how Israel can be called the “righteous one” when the people of Israel have not always obeyed God’s commandments God’s word declares otherwise. This passage describes the culmination of a long historical period and marks the time of the final redemption from exile. Obviously, if Israel as a nation is repentant there is no problem. But, what if that is not the case and Israel does not fully repent?
Continued from Part 28
Jesus and the spoils of war shared with the mighty.
What portion did Jesus share with the great, what spoil did he divide with the mighty? Who are the “great” and who are the “mighty” with whom he supposedly interacted and shared the “spoil”? Where and what is the fulfillment? Is fulfillment left to the “he’s coming any day now” second coming farce? Christians, get over it, he’s not coming back–not then, not now, not ever.
Continued from Part 27
The servant’s rewards for faithfulness to God
In verse 12, God speaks of the servant, who, as a result of his selflessness, is willing to give up all that he possesses in the service of God. This is the meaning of sacrifice within the context of our discussion.
53:12: “I will divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the mighty”
There is a great divide between truth (Isaiah) and fiction (the New Testament).
To have or to have nothing that is the question. What portion did Jesus allegedly have and when did he get it? How is a Christian interpretation of “I will divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the mighty,” where the servant receives “a portion with the great” to be reconciled with Daniel 9:26: